The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty. The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

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QUIZ of the Month Title Image with Orthopaedic Icons

October 2024

1 / 10

Trauma

Which of the following structures are at risk during a posterior approach to the scapula?

Remediation:
A. The musculocutaneous nerve is not encountered in this operative approach.
B. Subclavian artery injuries can occur during a direct approach to the clavicle.
C. The posterior approach to the scapula follows the internervous plane between the suprascapular nerve (infraspinatus) and the axillary nerve (teres minor), and places both nerves at risk for injury. Dissection around the spinoglenoid notch places the suprascapular nerve at particular risk.
D. The posterior approach to the scapula follows the internervous plane between the suprascular nerve (infraspinatus) and the axillary nerve (teres minor), and places both nerves at risk for injury. Traction on the teres minor muscle places the axillary nerve at risk.
E. The lower, or inferior, subscapular nerve innervates the lower portion of the subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle and is not at risk during the posterior approach to the scapula.

2 / 10

Sports Medicine

A 25-year-old male patient presents with 4 weeks of progressive activity-related right groin pain. Over the last 2 months he has started an aggressive workout routine including high-mileage running. Initial radiographs are negative, and a non-arthrogram coronal T2-weighted magnetic resonance image is shown. A decision is made to proceed with 6 weeks of touch-down weightbearing. Which of the following findings on the MR imaging is a predictor of failure of nonoperative management of his injury?

sports medicine

Remediation:
A. The presence of a joint effusion predicts an 8-fold increased risk for failure of nonoperative treatment of compression-sided stress fractures that is < 50% of the width of the femoral neck.
B. Fracture line that is >50% of diameter of the hip is a predictor of failure in non operative treatment of compression sided femoral neck fractures.
C. Edema seen in isolation represents a stress reaction, or a precursor to a stress fracture. When seen alone, nonoperative treatment is very successful.
D. A labral tear is not seen on this imaging, and the presence of one would not predict failure of nonoperative treatment for a femoral neck fracture.

3 / 10

Spine

A 27-year-old female patient with left leg pain associated with left L4-L5 posterolateral disc herniation is scheduled for an L4-L5 microdiscectomy. Imaging is shown. On examination, she has intact motor strength and sensation with a positive straight leg raise. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 39 kg/m². Which of the following are her risks of developing a surgical site infection?

spine

Remediation:
A. Patients with extreme obesity had higher rates of infections compared with non-obese patients, but they had a greater surgical treatment effect.
B. Patients with extreme obesity had higher rates of infections compared with non-obese patients, but they had a greater surgical treatment effect. Lee, et al. (2016) found that for every 1 mm of thickness in subcutaneous fat, there was 6% increase in risk of SSI. Patients with at least 50 mm of posterior lumbar fat thickness had four-fold increase in risk of surgical site infection compared with those with <50 mm.
C. Patients with extreme obesity had higher rates of infections compared with non-obese patients, but they had a greater surgical treatment effect. Sex has no effect on surgical site infections.
D. Patients with extreme obesity had higher rates of infections compared with non-obese patients, but they had a greater surgical treatment effect. Sex has no effect on surgical site infections (SSI). Yao, et al (2018) did not find that gender affected SSI rate following spine surgery. Obesity (BMI >30-35) clearly did.

4 / 10

Shoulder and Elbow

A 48-year-old female patient with a rotator cuff tear presents with continued pain and functional limitations after receiving a subacromial corticosteroid injection 2 weeks ago. The patient wants to discuss surgery since the injection has not relieved her symptoms. You tell the patient that she will have to wait for at least ____  before undergoing operative treatment?

Remediation:
A-D: Infection rates are increased if surgery is performed within 1 month after receiving a corticosteroid injection.

5 / 10

Pediatrics

A 14-year-old male patient presents with an isolated arm injury. Radiographs are shown. He is treated with closed reduction and fiberglass casting. Over the next 24 hours, he appears anxious and agitated, and develops paresthesias in the thumb, index, and long finger palmar surfaces of the casted arm. His fingers have brisk capillary refill with good Doppler signals in the digital arteries, and he is able to demonstrate a flicker of finger movement with minor pain. When determining evaluation and treatment for potential acute compartment syndrome, which of the following information about pediatric compartment syndrome should be considered?

pediatrics

Remediation:
A. Recovery of muscle viability is more likely in children than adults so the initial surgery should focus on decompression. Aggressive muscle debridement is more appropriate for second and third surgeries.
B. Children are less likely to need soft-tissue coverage than adults since repeated washouts with negative pressure dressings and serial closure will often allow eventual primary closure.
C. High elevation of the arm decreases perfusion; therefore, elevation should be at heart level. Splitting both the cast padding and the fiberglass/plaster cast material will alleviate pressures better than splitting the fiberglass or plaster alone.
D. Compartment pressure measurement has shortcomings in all ages; however, it remains a useful adjunct when the clinical examination is unclear. Pain is not a reliable indication in children. Instead, one should use the 3 "A's" requirement: agitation, anxiety, and analgesia.

6 / 10

Basic Science and Pathology

Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for perioperative hyperglycemia in patients undergoing elective total joint arthroplasty?

Remediation:
A. Age alone is not associated with perioperative hyperglycemia.
B. As an independent factor, body mass index is not associated with perioperative hyperglycemia.
C. Diabetes mellitus has been shown to be the strongest risk factor for perioperative hyperglycemia in patients undergoing total joint arthroplasty.
D. Smoking does not have any effect on the risk of perioperative hyperglycemia.

7 / 10

Hand and Wrist

A 35-year-old female patient presents with pain and swelling in her long finger after sustaining a puncture wound with a clean thumbtack 24 hours ago. She has warmth and erythema in the affected digit and it is held in a flexed posture. A clinical photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

hand

Remediation:
A. The patient has 4 of 4 Kanavel signs and a clinical history that is consistent with septic flexor tenosynovitis.
B. The patient has 4 of 4 Kanavel signs and a clinical history that is consistent with septic flexor tenosynovitis. A patient with paronychia would present with pain and erythema at the paronychium.
C. The patient has 4 of 4 Kanavel signs and a clinical history that is consistent with septic flexor tenosynovitis. A patient with a joint dislocation would likely present with finger deformity.
D. The patient has 4 of 4 Kanavel signs and a clinical history that is consistent with septic flexor tenosynovitis. She has no history of exposure to chemicals, and a chemical injury would likely affect more than 1 finger.

8 / 10

Foot and Ankle

Which of the following anatomic structures is most at risk while performing a direct medial approach for a Lapidus bunion correction?

Remediation:
A. The posterior tibial tendon inserts broadly but primarily on the medial navicular. It is well proximal to the site in question.
B. The DP artery is lateral to the 1st tarsometatarsal joint.
C. The FHL is relatively plantar as compared to this medial approach.
D. The anterior tibial tendon inserts dorsomedially on the medial cuneiform and the 1st metatarsal base (the bones involved in a a Lapidus procedure). It is at risk with a direct medial approach.
E. The dorsal hallucal cutaneous nerve is at risk, but the risk is greater to the anterior tibial tendon with a direct medial approach to the 1st tarsometatarsal joint.

9 / 10

Knee

In the nonoperative treatment of medial compartment knee osteoarthritis, a medial unloader or valgus-producing knee brace reduces pain by which of the following mechanisms?

Remediation:
A. Data suggest that when a brace is worn for the treatment of medial compartment knee osteoarthritis, pain relief is due to reduced muscle co-contractions, mediated by the brace mechanically stabilizing the knee.
B. A lateral unloading brace would increase joint pressures on the medial compartment of the knee and is not recommended.
C. Bracing leads to a substantial overall lowering of antagonist muscle co-contractions on both the medial and lateral sides of the joint. This results in decreased joint compression.
D. A neutral brace setting results in the best overall improvements in the pain and knee function scores. Pain relief may result from diminished muscle co-contractions rather than medial compartment unloading.

10 / 10

Hip

Which of the following accurately describes the management of periprosthetic fractures in the trochanteric area around a total hip arthroplasty?

Remediation:
A. Vancouver A2 are fractures of the medial cortex of the proximal aspect of the femur in which the stem is loose, and they are treated with fracture fixation and stem revision.
B. Same as A
C. Vancouver AL fractures are around the lesser trochanter and usually are treated nonoperatively.
D. Vancouver AG fractures involve the greater trochanter and are treated nonoperatively unless they are displaced >2 cm.

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