The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty. The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

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QUIZ of the Month Title Image with Orthopaedic Icons

July 2025

1 / 10

Trauma

When performing intramedullary nailing of a fracture of the distal third of the tibia shaft, which of the following best describes the rate of malalignment and malunion without associated fibular fixation?

Remediation:
A. De Giacomo et al. found that malalignment and malunion were both low (2% and 3%, respectively) when distal third of the tibia fractures were fixed without associated fibular fixation.
B-D. Same as A

2 / 10

Sports Medicine

A 40-year-old female patient with type I osteogenesis imperfecta presents with activity-related pain in her right lower leg. Her pain occurs primarily with ambulation for short distances, and she does not use any gait-assistive devices. She is currently on a holiday from zoledronic acid infusions and has had multiple fractures treated nonoperatively in adulthood. Six months ago she presented to the emergency department with similar leg pain, and her radiographs showed no fracture at the time. One year ago, she was able to jog one mile on a running track without discomfort. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness along the right tibial crest and anterior bowing of both lower legs. Her gait is nonantalgic. Current radiographs are shown. Which of the following is the best initial treatment option?

sports medicine

Remediation:
A. Radiographs reveal an anterior tibial transverse stress fracture with the “dreaded black line” and anterior bowing centered proximal to the fracture. The initial treatment in this patient should consist of limited weightbearing to the involved extremity and close follow-up.
B. Segmental osteotomies may be an appropriate treatment should the patient have refractory pain and radiographic findings. With a diagnosis of tibial pseudarthrosis in a patient with osteogenesis imperfecta, operative planning should incorporate deformity correction, a load-sharing implant, and consideration of biologic supplementation in the form of autograft cancellous bone or osteoinductive commercial grafts.
C. With anterior bowing, insertion of a rigid tibial rod may result in breaching of the anterior diaphyseal cortex. Additionally, there is marked cortical thickening and a relatively narrow intramedullary canal (7 mm at the isthmus) that may make reaming with a flexible device technically difficult.
D. Comprehensive orthopaedic care for adults with skeletal dysplasias remains a challenge. The patient's care should be reviewed by the multidisciplinary team, and a treatment plan should be agreed upon. Referral to a pediatric orthopaedist is not necessary.

3 / 10

Spine

You are called to the emergency department to see a 36-year-old male patient with a gunshot wound to the back. He is hemodynamically stable and has no sensation or motor function below his umbilicus. Which of the following is the likelihood that the patient will have a concomitant injury to a visceral organ?

Remediation:
A. This patient sustained a gunshot wound to the spine, resulting in a complete spinal cord injury. Penetrating trauma to the flank and the abdomen is associated with concomitant injury to the abdominal viscera, with rates as high as 90%.
B. Same as A
C. Same as A
D. This patient sustained a gunshot wound to the spine, resulting in a complete spinal cord injury. Penetrating trauma to the flank and the abdomen is associated with concomitant injury to the abdominal viscera, with rates as high as 90%. During the advanced trauma life support (ATLS) survey, the provider must be vigilant for an acute surgical abdomen, which is characterized by abdominal guarding and rebound tenderness.

4 / 10

Shoulder and Elbow

Which of the following is the most common risk factor for development of a nerve-related complication after elbow arthroscopy?

Remediation:
A. Diabetes mellitus has not been shown to be a risk factor for the development of a nerve-related complication after elbow arthroscopy. It is a risk factor for infection after elbow arthroscopy.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis and contracture are the two most common risk factors for a nerve-related complication after elbow arthroscopy.
C. Posttraumatic arthritis of the elbow is not a major risk factor for development of a nerve-related complication after elbow arthroscopy. The main risk factors are rheumatoid arthritis and elbow contracture.
D. Same as C

5 / 10

Pediatrics

A 5-year-old girl presents for evaluation of short stature. On examination, she has a relatively short trunk compared to her arms and legs. She has lumbar lordosis and a waddling gait. Both hips demonstrate symmetric but limited abduction and flexion contractures of 30°. She has been previously treated for a club-foot deformity, and there is a family history of short stature. Plain radiographs of the pelvis and spine are shown. The genetic defect for this disorder is associated with which of the following genes?

pediatrics

Remediation:
A. The clinical scenario describes a patient with short trunk dwarfism and a waddling gait, with lumbar lordosis related to hip flexion contractures. Spine radiographs demonstrate platyspondyly. The pelvic radiograph demonstrates bilateral coxa vara with delayed epiphyseal ossification and a concern for hip dislocation. The clinical picture suggests spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita, and the genetic defect involves the COL2A1 gene on chromosome 12.
B. The clinical scenario describes a patient with short trunk dwarfism and a waddling gait, with lumbar lordosis related to hip flexion contractures. Spine radiographs demonstrate platyspondyly. The pelvic radiograph demonstrates bilateral coxa vara with delayed epiphyseal ossification and a concern for hip dislocation. The clinical picture suggests spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita, and the genetic defect involves the COL2A1 gene on chromosome 12. The FGFR-3 gene is associated with achondroplasia, a disproportionate dwarfism with relatively normal trunk height.
C. The clinical scenario describes a patient with short trunk dwarfism and a waddling gait, with lumbar lordosis related to hip flexion contractures. Spine radiographs demonstrate platyspondyly. The pelvic radiograph demonstrates bilateral coxa vara with delayed epiphyseal ossification and a concern for hip dislocation. The clinical picture suggests spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita, and the genetic defect involves the COL2A1 gene on chromosome 12. The COL1A1 gene is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, a brittle-bone skeletal dysplasia characterized by multiple fractures and long bone deformities.
D. The clinical scenario describes a patient with short trunk dwarfism and a waddling gait, with lumbar lordosis related to hip flexion contractures. Spine radiographs demonstrate platyspondyly. The pelvic radiograph demonstrates bilateral coxa vara with delayed epiphyseal ossification and a concern for hip dislocation. The clinical picture suggests spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita, and the genetic defect involves the COL2A1 gene on chromosome 12. The PMP-22 gene is associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a common hereditary peripheral neuropathy that does not result in short stature.

6 / 10

Pathology and Basic Science

Genetic mouse models with conditional knockout of Kif3a in osteoblasts and osteocytes result in which of the following phenotypes?

Remediation:
A. Sedentary mice with Kif3a mutations show normal bone mineral density.
B. Same as A
C. Kif3a knockout studies impede cilia formation in osteocytes and result in bone having a reduced anabolic response to mechanical loading.
D. Mice with conditional bone-specific Kif3a mutations are viable.

7 / 10

Hand and Wrist

A 34-year-old female patient who is right-hand dominant presents for a second opinion. She sustained a scaphoid waist fracture 5 months ago that was treated nonoperatively. She has continued pain and discomfort in the wrist as well as limited range of motion secondary to pain. Physical examination is notable for pain over the scaphoid tubercle as well as a positive scaphoid shift test. Imaging is shown. The decision is made to proceed with operative correction of her scaphoid nonunion. When discussing operative treatment options with the patient, which of the following information should you provide?

hand wrist

Remediation:
A. There is a significant humpback deformity seen on the sagittal cut of the computed tomography scan. The humpback deformity is more readily corrected via a volar approach.
B. Compression screw fixation has been shown to have superior union rates, time to union, and return to activity compared with K-wire fixation in the treatment of scaphoid nonunions.
C. Reported union rates for vascularized bone grafts for scaphoid nonunion range from 27% to 100%, but comparative studies are lacking.
D. There is controversy over use of vascularized versus nonvascularized bone grafts for the treatment of scaphoid nonunions. No clear difference has been shown, but there have not been Level I comparative studies.

8 / 10

Foot and Ankle

Which of the following joints involved in a triple arthrodesis has the most motion in a normal foot?

Remediation:
A. As Astion and colleagues noted in their frequently cited biomechanical investigation, the talonavicular joint is the "key" to the triple joint complex of the hindfoot. The talonavicular joint has the greatest range of motion, and simulated arthrodesis essentially eliminated motion of the other hindfoot joints.
B. As Astion and colleagues noted in their frequently cited biomechanical investigation, the talonavicular joint is the "key" to the triple joint complex of the hindfoot. The talonavicular joint has the greatest range of motion, and simulated arthrodesis essentially eliminated motion of the other hindfoot joints.
C. The subtalar joint has the second-most amount of motion of the hindfoot joints.
D. The 1st tarsometatarsal joint is not addressed in a triple arthrodesis.

9 / 10

Knee

Mechanical failure of revision total knee arthroplasty using either fully cemented stems or hybrid press-fit stems have increased failure rates in which of the following group of patients?

Remediation:
A. There is no difference in failure rate for cemented versus press-fit stems in patients with a BMI >35 kg/m²
B. There is no difference in failure rate for cemented versus press-fit stems in patients with tibial bone deficits.
C. Patients younger than the age of 65 years have higher mechanical failure rates with either cemented or press-fit stems when compared to those older who are older than 65 years.
D. There is no difference in failure rate for cemented versus press-fit stems in patients with increased level of constraint.

10 / 10

Hip

A 64-year-old female patient presents for routine follow-up of her right total hip arthroplasty, which was performed 12 years ago. Her medical history is noteworthy for well-controlled hypertension. She denies any prosthetic complication since her index procedure. She has been asymptomatic until approximately 3 months ago, at which point she started developing mild pain in her right hip. She has not gotten better despite physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Currently, she denies pain with ambulation, but she does have mild pain with provocative maneuvers. Her inflammatory markers are within normal limits and the serum metal ion levels are < 1 ppb. After discussing treatment options with the patient, she decides that she would like to pursue surgery. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?

hip

Remediation:
A. This patient likely has pain related to eccentric polyethylene wear and osteolysis in the setting of well-fixed and well-positioned components. Head-liner exchange is the best option to address the cause of her symptoms while minimizing potential morbidity from the procedure.
B. This patient is unlikely to have an infection given her normal inflammatory markers; therefore aspiration is not indicated.
C. This patient is unlikely to have metallosis and an associated pseuodotumor given her low serum metal ions and lack of metal-on-metal bearing surface.
D. The acetabular component looks to be in an adequate good position and is well-fixed. If the hip is stable intraoperatively, then it does not need to be revised. A constrained liner should be reserved for abductor deficiency.
E. In the absence of infection, loosening, or implant malposition, there is no reason to revise all of the components.

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