Remediation:
A. Sacral "U" fractures are not commonly associated with sacroiliac joint injuries, so fixation of this joint is not indicated.
B. Sacral "U" fractures are commonly isolated to the posterior pelvic ring and are not likely to need fixation in the anterior ring.
C. The paradoxical inlet view is seen with forward flexion of the S1 body in the presence of a sacral "U" fracture pattern. Although minimally displaced patterns may be effectively stabilized with transiliac-transsacral screws, high-energy patterns may need fixation bridging between the intact lumbar spine and the pelvic ring.
D. Unilateral iliosacral screws may provide adequate fixation for a sacroiliac joint injury, but a sacral "U" fracture pattern needs transiliac-transsacral screw fixation or triangular osteosynthesis.

Remediation:
A. The patient has a clinical presentation and imaging consistent with an unstable capitellar osteochondritis dissecans lesion. Laterally-based lesions in particular have a negative prognosis. Reparative procedures such as drilling and microfracture may be inadequate. A diagnostic arthroscopy is reasonable as part of a resurfacing procedure.
B. Activity modification would have been a consideration earlier in the patient’s course when her presentation demonstrated a stable osteochondritis dissecans lesion, which is now unstable.  She also demonstrates single-sport specialization, which may have contributed to her pathology.
C. Osteochondral allograft transfer is an option of OCD lesion of the elbow. However, the highest return to sport is associated with using autograft transfer.  The patient is 12 years old and a high level athletes. Best chance to return to sports is using the autograft option.
D. Osteochondral autograft transfer is currently standard of care for unstable capitellar osteochondritis dissecans lesions, particularly laterally-based lesions known to have a poorer prognosis, and is associated with the highest rates of return to sport.

Remediation:
A. In a C3-C4 disc herniation, the C4 nerve root is affected. C4 radicular pain typically radiates to the trapezius. There is no reflex specific for this level. Sensory changes affect the skin over the trapezius.
B. In a C4-C5 disc herniation, the C5 nerve root is affected. C5 radiculopathy may cause weakness in the elbow flexion (biceps) and shoulder abduction (deltoid). The biceps reflex may be decreased. Sensory changes affect the skin over the lateral shoulder.
C. In a C5-C6 disc herniation, the C6 nerve root is affected. C6 radiculopathy may cause weakness in elbow flexion and wrist extension. The brachioradialis reflex may be decreased. Sensory changes affect the skin over the biceps, the radial forearm, and the thumb. The inverted radial reflex can be seen due to hyporeflexia at the C5-C6 level and hyperreflexia at the C6-C7 level.
D. In a C6-C7 disc herniation, the C7 nerve root is affected. C7 radiculopathy may cause weakness in wrist flexion, elbow extension, and finger extension. The triceps reflex may be decreased. Sensory changes affect the skin over the triceps, the extensor forearm, and the middle finger.
E. A C7-T1 disc herniation affects the C8 nerve root. C8 radiculopathy may cause weakness in finger abduction. There is no reflex specific for this level. Sensory changes affect the skin over the ulnar forearm and the small finger.

Remediation:

A- D. Flexion beyond 45° will place increased tension on the ulnar nerve at the elbow and increase symptoms.

Remediation:
A. Chondrolysis is not a common complication but is something to monitor for on subsequent follow-up imaging.
B. Chondrolysis is more likely to present on radiographs sooner.
C. While this is thought to be a risk for chondrolysis, it can occur idiopathically.
D. Chondrolysis is more common in unstabilized hips.

Remediation:
A. The patient's examination is not consistent with capsular contracture. A capsulotomy would not address the imbalance in the forces of the flexor digitorum profundus and the lumbrical.
B. In the case of a lumbrical plus finger, a distal intrinsic release can help correct the deformity by taking away the overpull from the flexor digitorum profundus on the lumbrical.
C. The patient has already tried therapy without results. A surgical option would be more appropriate to address the mechanical cause of the lumbrical plus finger.
D. The patient's examination is not consistent with tendon adhesions. A tenolysis would not address the imbalance in the forces of the flexor digitorum profundus and the lumbrical.
E. In a lumbrical plus finger, the tension is not correct in the flexor digitorum profundus, which leads to overpull on the lumbricals. A central slip tenotomy is performed for a swan-neck deformity and would not address this patient's problem.

Remediation:
A. An Akin osteotomy is a medial closing-wedge osteotomy of the proximal phalanx. It does not cause substantial shortening of the first ray.
B. A Wilson osteotomy is a distal, oblique metatarsal osteotomy that results in proximal and lateral displacement of the capital portion. This osteotomy routinely causes shortening of the first metatarsal and subsequent transfer metatarsalgia.
C. A Mau osteotomy is an oblique osteotomy of the first metatarsal and is oriented plantar-proximal to dorsal-distal. It is not regularly associated with substantial shortening of the first ray.
D. A crescentic osteotomy is a proximal metatarsal osteotomy that can result in dorsiflexion of the first metatarsal but is not regularly associated with substantial shortening of the first ray.

Remediation:
A. The best available evidence, as noted in the Clinical Practice Guidelines for the Treatment of Osteoarthritis of the Knee (Non-Surgical) from the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, does not support the routine use of intra-articular HA injections.
B-D. Same as A

Remediation:
A. According to the 2020 American Joint Replacement Registry (AJRR) report, the top three causes of revision THA overall were infection (19%), instability (17%), and aseptic loosening (16%).
B-D. Same as A