The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty. The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

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QUIZ of the Month Title Image with Orthopaedic Icons

December 2025

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Hip

A 58-year-old female patient is scheduled to undergo total hip arthroplasty. The patient reports having a rash after taking penicillin as a child. Which of the following antibiotics would be appropriate for perioperative prophylaxis for this patient?

Remediation:
A. For a patient with a reported nonanaphylactic reaction to penicillin, a second generation cephalosporin can be used safely since there is limited cross-reactivity.
B. For a patient with a reported nonanaphylactic reaction to penicillin, a second generation cephalosporin can be safely used. In addition, clinical studies show that vancomycin alone as prophylaxis increases the risk for a surgical site infection.
C. Clindamycin is a bacteriostatic agent. For a patient with a nonanaphylactic reaction to penicillin, a second generation cephalosporin is a preferred choice.
D. Levofloxacin alone is not used for antibiotic prophylaxis. A second generation cephalosporin can be used safely since there is limited cross-reactivity.

2 / 10

Knee

Backside wear occurs when there is motion between the tibial base plate and the polyethylene insert. Which of the following has been shown to reduce backside wear in total knee arthroplasty?

Remediation:
A. A dovetail locking mechanism has more backside wear.
B. A smooth finish on the tibial surface, rather than the polyethylene undersurface, has lower backside wear.
C. A peripheral locking mechanism has been shown to have lower backside wear.
D. A smooth finish on the tibial surface has lower backside wear.

3 / 10

Foot and Ankle

A 35-year-old female patient presents with long-standing pain at the lateral aspect of the 5th metatarsophalangeal joint. Radiographs are shown. Her bunionette deformity would be classified as which of the following?
foot ankle quiz

Remediation:
A. The characteristic radiographic finding is an enlarged 5th metatarsal head in a Type I bunionette.
B. The characteristic radiographic finding is lateral bowing in a Type II bunionette, which is seen here.
C. The characteristic radiographic finding is an increased 4-5 intermetatarsal angle in a Type III bunionette.
D. A Type IV bunionette has proximal and distal deformities.

4 / 10

Hand and Wrist

A 27-year-old female patient suffered a fall earlier in the day and presents with right index finger deformity and pain. Radiographs show a simple volar proximal interphalangeal (PIP) dislocation. Closed reduction is performed under digital block anaesthesia, and post-reduction imaging shows concentric reduction. Treatment involving PIP extension splinting for 6 weeks is ordered to facilitate healing of which of the following structures?

Remediation:
A. Simple volar dislocations of the PIP joint are concerning for a central slip rupture. PIP immobilization in extension for 6 weeks is appropriate to allow the central slip to heal without a gap.
B. Simple volar dislocations of the PIP joint are concerning for injury to the central slip, not the lateral bands.
C. Simple volar dislocations of the PIP joint are concerning for a central slip, not collateral ligament injury. Extension of the PIP joint tensions the accessory collateral ligaments.
D. Simple volar dislocations of the PIP joint are concerning for central slip, not volar plate injury. Extension of the PIP joint tensions the volar plate.

5 / 10

Pathology and Basic Science

In fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva, bone marrow transplantation procedures to replace the hematopoietic stem-cell progenitors with cells that do not contain a genetic defect have had which of the following impacts on the disease?

Remediation:
A. Correction of the genetic defect in the hematopoietic stem-cell progenitors does not impact the disease process, as cells outside the bone marrow space can generate bone.
B. Attempts to correct the genetic defect would not be expected to lead to an increase in ectopic bone formation.
C. Studies by Kaplan, et al. have shown that bone marrow transplantation results in minimal improvement in the formation of ectopic bone formation in fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva.
D. Treatment impacting the bone marrow stem-cell compartment does not alleviate ectopic bone formation in this disorder.

6 / 10

Pediatrics

A 9-year-old boy with early-onset scoliosis has an apex right main thoracic scoliosis measuring 70°. He originally presented at age 7 with a 35° thoracic curve, but has demonstrated progression despite bracing. His physical examination, medical history, and magnetic resonance imaging are normal. Which of the following is the best treatment for his worsening scoliosis?

Remediation:
A. Growing rods are the best option to delay the need for fusion.
B. Fusion at this young age will likely lead to crankshaft phenomenon.
C. While this will prevent progression, the thorax will be substantially shortened from fusion at this young age.
D. This technique is effective at a younger age for certain congenital scoliosis patterns.

7 / 10

Shoulder and Elbow

Which of the following nerves is at highest risk of injury during arthroscopic elbow contracture release?

Remediation:
A. The radial nerve is the second most commonly injured nerve.
B. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the third most commonly injured nerve.
C. Injury to the posterior interosseous nerve is relatively rare but is theoretically at most risk near the proximal anterolateral portal.
D. The ulnar nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in arthroscopic elbow contracture release. The majority of injuries are transient palsies.

8 / 10

Spine

A 12-year-old boy presents with the shown 30° lumbar curve with overall good coronal and sagittal alignment. Which of the following types of anomaly does he have that put him at higher risk for progression of his deformity?

spine

Remediation:
A. The patient has a fully segmented hemivertebra, which has a higher risk for progression at about 2° to 3.5° per year.
B-D. Same as A

9 / 10

Sports Medicine

Which of the following will affect the functional outcome and failure rate of operative treatment for the condition shown in the T2-weighted magnetic resonance image?
sports medicine

Remediation:
A. Most large studies show no difference in outcomes or rerupture rates when comparing hamstring and patellar tendon autografts.
B. The use of allograft is consistently associated with higher rerupture risks when compared with autograft.
C. High-grade chondral injuries at the time of reconstruction are associated with worse outcomes postoperatively.
D. Functional bracing has not been shown to have a protective effect postoperatively.
E. Outcomes following revision surgery tend to be worse than outcomes after primary surgery.
F. Trochlear morphology affects recurrence rates after medial patellofemoral ligament reconstruction, but not anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction.

10 / 10

Trauma

A 37-year-old male patient falls from a height of 12 ft while working on a ladder. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs as well as an axial image from a computed tomography (CT) scan of the distal aspect of the tibia are shown. A soft-tissue structure can be seen trapped between the fracture fragments at the posteromedial aspect of the ankle and is identified by the arrow on the CT image. Which of the following structures is identified as the trapped soft-tissue structure?

trauma

Remediation:
A. The structure identified with the arrow is the posterior tibial tendon. This is the most commonly entrapped structure in tibial pilon fractures.
B. The structure identified with the arrow is the posterior tibial tendon, not the tibial nerve. The tibial nerve is rarely entrapped in pilon fractures.
C. Same as A
D. The structure identified with the arrow is the posterior tibial tendon, not the flexor digitorum longus tendon.
E. The structure identified with the arrow is the posterior tibial tendon, not the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

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