The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty. The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

/10
0
Created on
QUIZ of the Month Title Image with Orthopaedic Icons

August 2025

1 / 10

Trauma

All of the following are appropriate indications for operative repair of an isolated ulnar shaft fracture EXCEPT:

Remediation:
A. An open fracture is an indication for irrigation and debridement as well as open reduction and internal fixation.
B. Surgery is indicated for isolated ulnar shaft fractures with 10° or more of angulation.
C. Cortical displacement of >50% is an indication for surgery.
D. Surgery is indicated when an ulnar shaft fracture is associated with instability of the distal radioulnar joint.

2 / 10

Sports Medicine

You are evaluating a 13-year-old male patient who sustained a hip injury while playing basketball. An avulsion fracture is noted on a plain radiograph. Which of the following complications should be a concern after operative or nonoperative management?

spine

Remediation:
A. With adequate reduction, the risk of nonunion in a 13-year-old patient is low.
B. Infection is not a complication associated with avulsion of the greater trochanter.
C. With avulsion of the greater trochanter in a skeletally immature patient, osteonecrosis is a concern due to disruption of the blood supply at the time of injury, an intra-capsular hematoma, or an iatrogenic injury during treatment.
D. Malignancy is not a complication associated with avulsion of the greater trochanter.

3 / 10

Spine

Although not universally accepted, the Denver screening criteria for a blunt vertebral artery injury states that which of the following patients with a cervical spine fracture should undergo computed tomography angiography (CTA)?

Remediation:
A- D.   The Denver screening criteria state that any patient with a cervical spine fracture is at high risk for a blunt vertebral artery injury and should undergo screening with CTA.

4 / 10

Shoulder and Elbow

Which of the following is the correct Walch classification of glenoid morphology for the primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis in the imaging shown?

shoulder quiz

Remediation:
A. A1 is a centered head with a loss of the joint space.
B. A2 is a centered head with medialization of the joint with glenoid bone loss.
C. B1 is posterior subluxation of the humeral head with loss of joint space but no bone loss.
D. B2 is posterior subluxation of the humeral head with a biconcavity due to posterior rim bone loss.
E. C is a retroverted glenoid due to erosions or a congenital dysplasia.

5 / 10

Pediatrics

An otherwise healthy 8-year-old boy sustains a complete C7 spinal cord injury after a fracture. Which of the following is the most likely sequela following this injury?

Remediation:
A. Spasticity develops in the joints with innervation distal to the level of the injury.
B. Approximately two-thirds of children with a spinal cord injury eventually develop scoliosis that requires operative stabilization, typically within 18 months to 2 years after the injury.
C. A C7 level injury will typically not substantially impact independent respiratory function.
D. Patients who sustain a spinal cord injury will sometimes suffer from bouts of uncontrolled hypertension as a result of autonomic dysfunction.

6 / 10

Pathology and Basic Science

Which of the following is the fate of chondrocytes within the hypertrophic layer of the physis?

Remediation:
A. The chondrocytes of the hypertrophic zone become enlarged and ultimately undergo apoptosis.
B. Same as A
C. Hypertrophic chondrocytes in the lower mineralized zone undergo apoptosis so that the transition from growth plate to metaphysis is abrupt and is designated by the last intact layer of chondrocytes.
D. From the metaphyseal side of the growth plate, chondroclasts attack the mineralized cartilage matrix and rapidly remove the septa between individual chondrocytes, allowing vascular invasion and osteoblast progenitors.

7 / 10

Hand and Wrist

A 22-year-old male patient who is a rock climber presents after feeling a "pop" in his left ring finger while performing a crimp-grip maneuver. He is experiencing pain and swelling in the digit but can make a full fist with normal strength. Magnetic resonance imaging supports an A4 pulley rupture.  Initial treatment should include which of the following?

Remediation:
A. The initial treatment of an A4 pulley rupture is rest, splinting, pulley rings, or taping as needed.
B. Operative A4 pulley reconstruction is not the first-line treatment for an A4 pulley rupture.
C. Same as B
D. The patient can make a full fist with normal strength. Primary repair of the A4 pulley is not indicated. Late bowstringing is not expected to develop.

8 / 10

Foot and Ankle

A 40-year-old female patient presents with long-standing midfoot and hindfoot pain of her left foot. She has received no treatment for this in the past. Her radiographs are shown. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

foot ankle quiz jbjs

Remediation:
A. The radiographs show narrowing of the lateral pole of the navicular, consistent with Mueller-Weiss syndrome.
B. Kohler's disease (osteochondrosis/ischemic necrosis of the navicular) typically occurs in children younger than 10 years of age.
C. The patient is young for posterior tibial tendon dysfunction (PTTD). Additionally, there is both hindfoot and midfoot pain with radiographic findings of Mueller-Weiss syndrome. PTTD would instead have uncoverage of the talar head on radiographs.
D. The midfoot joints are not narrowed on the anteroposterior radiograph. Also, the patient has hindfoot pain.
E. The subtalar joint does not have narrowing on the lateral radiograph.

9 / 10

Knee

Which of the following is a contraindication for medial mobile (Oxford) unicompartmental knee arthroplasty?

Remediation:
A. Mild patellofemoral osteoarthritis is not a contraindication to unicompartmental knee arthroplasty.
B. Patients of all ages can be considered for unicompartmental knee arthroplasty assuming they meet other indications.
C. A patient should have 90° or more of arc of motion to undergo unicompartmental knee arthroplasty. According to the surgical technique, a minimum 110° knee flexion is required for proper femoral preparation.
D. Inflammatory arthritis affects the entire joint and, therefore, replacing only one compartment is not recommended. These patients require total knee arthroplasty.

10 / 10

Hip

A 63-year-old female patient who underwent acetabular component revision for right hip instability at another hospital presents to the emergency department 1 week postoperatively after feeling a pop in the operative hip while moving in bed. A radiograph is shown. Which of the following is the least likely cause of her symptoms?

hip

Remediation:
A. According to a 2019 review of 2,500 revision total hip arthroplasty procedures performed between 2005 and 2015, the most common reasons for failure/rerevision were 1) instability, 2) periprosthetic fracture, and 3) aseptic loosening. Polyethylene wear had decreased to around 3%, compared with historical data that showed polyethylene wear as a more common reason for revision failure.
B. According to a 2019 review of 2,500 revision total hip arthroplasty procedures performed between 2005 and 2015, the most common reasons for failure/rerevision were 1) instability, 2) periprosthetic fracture, and 3) aseptic loosening.
C. Same as B
D. Same as B

0%

Menu