Remediation:

a-d. The superior gluteal and femoral nerves comprise the correct internervous plane for deep dissection using the anterior approach.

Remediation:
a. Open reduction and internal fixation is not a treatment option for a displaced femoral neck fracture in an elderly patient.
b. Since the patient has arthritis, total hip arthroplasty is preferred over hemiarthroplasty
c. Sliding hip compression screws can be used for patients with nondisplaced or valgus impacted femoral neck fractures, but is preferred for younger patients with a basicervical femoral neck fracture.
d. Total hip arthroplasty is the best option for a patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture who is a community ambulator and has preexisting hip osteoarthritis.

Remediation:
a. If a fracture line seen in the posterior cortex, a tibial stress fracture can be treated nonoperatively with non-weightbearing. If a fracture line is seen in the anterior cortex, there is a high risk of nonunion and fracture, and it is typically treated with operative fixation (although the patient should be made not weight bearing in a cast or boot until surgery is performed).
b. If a fracture line is seen in the posterior cortex, a tibial stress fracture can be treated nonoperatively with non-weightbearing. If a fracture line is seen in the anterior cortex, there is a high risk of nonunion and fracture, and it is typically treated with operative fixation.
c.  A tibial stress fracture in the anterior cortex carries an increased risk of nonunion and fracture and is typically treated with operative fixation. The patient should be made non-weight bearing until surgery with the ankle immobilized in a splint, cast or boot.
d. If a fracture line seen in the posterior cortex, a tibial stress fracture can be treated nonoperatively with non-weightbearing. If a fracture line is seen in the anterior cortex, there is a high risk of nonunion and fracture, and it is typically treated with operative fixation.

Remediation:
a. This patient has bilateral symmetrical diffuse hand numbness without any other sign or symptom of radiculomyelopathy. Despite having a normal electromyography with nerve conduction velocity (EMG/NCV) study for peripheral nerve entrapment or neuropathy, the next best step is to perform a physical examination and further evaluate for peripheral nerve disease since EMG/NCV can, at times, yield false-negative results.
b. This patient has bilateral symmetrical diffuse hand numbness without any other sign or symptom of radiculomyelopathy. Although the MRI shows cord compression at the C5-C6 level from disc-osteophyte complex, his symptoms are not consistent with his MRI findings. Thus, he needs further workup, not an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion.
c.  This patient has bilateral symmetrical diffuse hand numbness without any other sign or symptom of radiculomyelopathy. Although the MRI shows cord compression at the C5-C6 level from disc-osteophyte complex, his symptoms are not consistent with his MRI findings. Thus, he needs further workup, not a corpectomy.
d. This patient has bilateral symmetrical diffuse hand numbness without any other sign or symptom of radiculomyelopathy. Although the MRI shows cord compression at the C5-C6 level from disc-osteophyte complex, his symptoms are not consistent with his MRI findings. Thus, he needs further workup, not a laminectomy at C5-C6.

Remediation:
a. There is no difference in recurrent dislocation rate between arthroscopic and open Bankart repairs.
b. There is no difference in return to activity between open and arthroscopic Bankart repairs.
c. Arthroscopy allows for small incisions and better cosmesis compared with open surgery.
d. There is no difference in postoperative pain between open and arthroscopic Bankart repairs.

Remediation:
a.  A patient with an atypical scoliotic curve and abnormal reflexes should have additional imaging to evaluate for syringomyelia. Electromyography and nerve conduction studies will not show an abnormality such as syringomyelia.
b.  A patient with an atypical scoliotic curve and abnormal reflexes should be evaluated for syringomyelia with advanced imaging such as magnetic resonance imaging.
c.  While physical therapy may help the limited motion, the first step is for advanced imaging of the spine given the neurological findings and atypical curve.
d. A left thoracic curve in a patient with asymmetric abdominal reflexes should be evaluated for syringomyelia with advanced imaging.

Remediation:
a. Increased bone resorption affects trabecular bone, causing the trabeculae to become progressively thinner, eventually leading to the loss of trabecular connectivity. These changes in trabecular microarchitecture have been shown to rapidly compromise bone strength in areas where trabecular bone predominates, such as the vertebral bodies.
b. Increasing the cortical perimeter of a bone results in an exponential increase in resistance to bending and torsion without a marked increase in bone mass.
c.  Cortical porosity can serve as a site for fracture initiation, and also results in decreased bone mass, both of which can increase fracture risk.
d.  In addition to the degree of mineralization, the size and shape of the hydroxyapatite crystals also influence fracture risk. Increased bone strength seems to be associated with greater heterogeneity of mineral crystal size when compared with the presence of mostly large mineral crystals.

Remediation:
a. Trapeziectomy is an effective treatment of thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) osteoarthritis failing nonoperative measures. Hyperextension laxity at the MCP joint should be recognized because missed MCP instability is a cause of recurrent pain and disability. Arthrodesis is the correct choice for 40° of hyperextension laxity in a passively uncorrectable joint.
b. Trapeziectomy is an effective treatment of thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) osteoarthritis failing nonoperative measures. Hyperextension laxity at the MCP joint should be recognized because missed MCP instability is a cause of recurrent pain and disability. Volar MCP joint capsulodesis is not appropriate for 40° of hyperextension laxity in a passively uncorrectable joint.
c.  Trapeziectomy with or without ligament reconstruction are options for treatment of thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) osteoarthritis failing nonoperative measures. Regardless, MCP instability must be addressed to prevent recurrence and pain.
d. Arthrodesis is the correct choice for 40° of hyperextension laxity in a passively uncorrectable joint. Arthrodesis should be performed in flexion and slight pronation because this is the most functional position for the thumb MCP joint and allows easy opposition.

Remediation:
a. Shortening of the 1st metatarsal does not affect the sesamoid bones
b. Hallux rigidus is an arthritic condition that affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint and is not a recognized complication of iatrogenic first metatarsal shortening.
c. Excessive shortening of the first metatarsal can lead to transfer metatarsalgia due to overload on the lesser metatarsal heads.
d. Excessive shortening of the first metatarsal does not lead to medial column overload.

Remediation:
a. The patient does not have enough chondral damage to be indicated for OATS, and with a substantial varus femoral, if left uncorrected, the OATS would be expected to fail.
b. The patient is young and active with minimal arthritic changes; therefore, a medial opening wedge would correct the 12° of varus, provide reliable improvement in his symptoms, and would allow him to continue to run and play basketball.
c.  Arthroscopic debridement of the medial femoral chondral surface would not be the treatment of choice. With substantial varus deformity and medial-sided knee pain, simple debridement would not provide substantial relief of his symptoms.
d.  The patient does not meet the indications for a total knee arthroplasty. He has minimal arthritis.