The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty.ย The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

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QUIZ of the Month Title Image with Orthopaedic Icons

June 2025

1 / 10

Trauma

A 30-year-old female patient is brought to the emergency department after a motor-vehicle accident. During the implementation of the advanced trauma life support protocol, her blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 bpm. Initial resuscitation should be performed with which of the following?

Remediation:
A. The patient is in class-II shock with slight tachycardia and normal blood pressure. A crystalloid challenge is appropriate. This will increase circulating volume and thereby improve cardiac output and oxygen delivery to the end organs.
B. A colloid solution will increase oncotic pressure, keeping fluid in the intravascular space longer. However, colloids are more expensive, can cause hypersensitivity reactions, and have no particular advantage over crystalloid solutions.
C. If there is an inadequate response, initial crystalloid, or worsening vital signs, then blood product should be given.
D. The patient is not in uncompensated shock and no active bleeding is described. A massive transfusion protocol with a 1:1:1 ratio of plasma, red blood cells, and platelets does not need to be initiated immediately.

2 / 10

Sports Medicine

During which of the following phases of throwing (identified by letter in the figure) does pain most commonly occur in valgus extension overload syndrome?

sports medicine

Remediation:

A-Fย  ย Valgus extension overload causes pain in the late acceleration, deceleration, and follow-through or extension phases of throwing.

3 / 10

Spine

A 63-year-old female patient has long-standing low back pain that is worse with sitting, prolonged standing, and bending over. She has tried nonoperative treatments, including multimodal rehabilitation, physical therapy, epidural steroid injections, anti-inflammatory medications, and massage, which did not relieve her symptoms. She has no leg pain, radicular symptoms, or neurogenic claudication. Her images are shown. She undergoes L5-S1 total lumbar disc arthroplasty. When compared with a patient undergoing anterior lumbar interbody fusion with femoral ring allograft combined with posterolateral instrumented fusion with iliac crest autograft, this patient is more likely to have which of the following?

spine quiz jbjs

Remediation:
A. Compared to lumbar spinal fusion, patients undergoing total disc arthroplasty (TDA) have equivalent improvement in the VAS pain scores and the Oswestry Disability Index (ODI).
B. Compared to lumbar spinal fusion, patients undergoing total disc arthroplasty (TDA) have a lower rate of secondary surgeries (8% compared with 12%).
C. Patients undergoing total disc arthroplasty (TDA) do not have an increased risk of spontaneous fusion.
D. Patients undergoing total disc arthroplasty (TDA) do not have an increased risk of neurological deficit.
E. Compared to lumbar spinal fusion, patients undergoing total disc arthroplasty (TDA) have equivalent improvement in the visual analog scale (VAS) pain scores and the Oswestry Disability Index (ODI) at 5 years.

4 / 10

Shoulder and Elbow

A 21-year-old male patient who is a football player had recurrent shoulder dislocations during the football season and now presents seeking treatment for his shoulder instability. A computed tomography scan with 3D reconstruction demonstrates >40% of glenoid bone loss. Which of the following would be an ideal treatment option for this patient?

Remediation:
A. This patient is a young, male athlete playing contact sports who has recurrent dislocation with substantial bone loss, which makes him a candidate for a bone graft procedure to address the bone loss.
B. This patient needs a bone graft procedure. An open Bankart repair is not appropriate for him.
C. Arthroscopic or open coracoid transfer procedures are indicated for bone loss of 15% to 35%. Bone loss greater than that that should be addressed with other bone graft options such as an iliac crest autograft or a distal tibial allograft.
D. The width of the coracoid is 33% to 35% of the glenoid width, and bone loss of >35% should be addressed with other bone graft options such as an iliac crest autograft or a distal tibial allograft.
E. An open iliac crest autograft allows for restoration of large glenoid bony defects that cannot be addressed with a coracoid transfer.

5 / 10

Pediatrics

A 7-year-old boy presents with an aching pain in the left thumb that has worsened over the last year without an inciting incident. He previously had a fracture of the thumb that healed with cast treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this stage?
pediatrics

 

Remediation:
A. Radiographs show an expansile bone lesion with a pathologic fracture. Stabilization is not necessary, but the cyst should be addressed.
B. Same as A
C. Radiographs show an expansile bone lesion with a pathologic fracture. The history indicates that this is a 2nd fracture. The cyst should be addressed to prevent further expansion and repeat fractures.
D. Radiographs show an expansile bone lesion with a pathologic fracture. The history indicates that this is a 2nd fracture. The cyst should be addressed to prevent further expansion and repeat fractures, which are likely with nonoperative management.

6 / 10

Pathology and Basic Science

Which of the following describes the differences in the composition of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) based on age and sex?

Remediation:
A-D.ย  A study by Xiong, et al. evaluated the role of age and sex in the cytokine and growth factor composition of PRP. The study concluded that sex plays a greater role than age by demonstrating higher cytokine and growth factor concentrations in male patients.

7 / 10

Hand and Wrist

A lateral radiograph of the wrist shows the scapholunate (SL) angle between the longitudinal axes of the scaphoid and the lunate. Which of the following SL angle measurements corresponds with an SL ligament tear and a lunotriquetral (LT) ligament tear, respectively?

Remediation:
A-D. Normal SL angles range from 30ยฐ to 60ยฐ. SL ligament tears are associated with dorsal intercalated segment instability (DISI) and large SL angles. LT ligament tears are associated with volar intercalated segment instability (VISI) and small SL angles.

8 / 10

Foot and Ankle

A 63-year-old male patient presents with pain at the first metatarsophalangeal joint. He reports constant, moderate to severe pain and stiffness in the joint. On examination, he has dorsiflexion range of motion that is 90% of the contralateral hallux. He has no pain with mid-range passive range of motion. You obtain the radiographs shown and diagnose him with hallux rigidus. Using the Coughlin and Shurnas classification, which of the following is the correct classification for hallux rigidus?

foot ankle quiz

Remediation:
A. Grade I hallux rigidus occurs when there is pain at extremes of motion, a mild dorsal osteophyte and normal joint space
B. The Coughlin and Shurnas classification is based upon 3 factors: dorsiflexion, radiographic findings, and clinical findings. Grade II classification is defined as mdoerate pain with range of motion, moderate sized dorsal osteophyte and <50% joint space narrowing
C. Grade III hallux rigidus involves decreased dorsiflexion of 75% to 100% with substantial joint space narrowing of over 50% with pain at end range of motion
D. Grade IV hallux rigidus has the same motion and radiographic findings as grade 3 (decreased dorsiflexion of 75% to 100% with substantial joint space narrowing), and there is also pain with mid-range passive motion of the joint.

9 / 10

Knee

The administration of tranexamic acid to a patient undergoing total knee arthroplasty has been shown to do which of the following?

Remediation:
A. The use of tranexamic acid has not been associated with an increase of venous thrombotic events.
B. Tranexamic acid use has been shown to decrease the requirement for blood transfusions.
C. Tranexamic acid has no effect on prothrombin time or partial thromboplastin time.
D. The route of administration does not affect the efficacy of the tranexamic acid.

10 / 10

Hip

Which of the following is used to describe the sagittal angle of the acetabular cup that changes with the motion of the pelvis?

Remediation:
A. Ante-inclination is the sagittal angle of the acetabular cup that changes with the motion of the pelvis and is so named because the angle is affected by a combination of the anteversion and inclination of the cup.
B. The pelvic femoral angle is the sagittal hip-femur position that is a measure of the flexion of the hip with sitting or in extension with standing in relation to the pelvic position.
C. Pelvic incidence is the angle between the line perpendicular to the sacral plate at its midpoint and the line connecting this point to the axis of the femoral head.
D. The pelvic teardrop is a radiographic feature that is seen on pelvic radiographs and results from the end-on projection of a bony ridge running along the floor of the acetabular fossa.

 

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