Remediation:
A. Ante-inclination is the sagittal angle of the acetabular cup that changes with the motion of the pelvis and is so named because the angle is affected by a combination of the anteversion and inclination of the cup.
B. The pelvic femoral angle is the sagittal hip-femur position that is a measure of the flexion of the hip with sitting or in extension with standing in relation to the pelvic position.
C. Pelvic incidence is the angle between the line perpendicular to the sacral plate at its midpoint and the line connecting this point to the axis of the femoral head.
D. The pelvic teardrop is a radiographic feature that is seen on pelvic radiographs and results from the end-on projection of a bony ridge running along the floor of the acetabular fossa.

Remediation:
A. There is no difference in failure rate for cemented versus press-fit stems in patients with a BMI >35 kg/m²
B. There is no difference in failure rate for cemented versus press-fit stems in patients with tibial bone deficits.
C. Patients younger than the age of 65 years have higher mechanical failure rates with either cemented or press-fit stems when compared to those older who are older than 65 years.
D. There is no difference in failure rate for cemented versus press-fit stems in patients with increased level of constraint.

Remediation:
A. Radiographs reveal an anterior tibial transverse stress fracture with the “dreaded black line” and anterior bowing centered proximal to the fracture. The initial treatment in this patient should consist of limited weightbearing to the involved extremity and close follow-up.
B. Segmental osteotomies may be an appropriate treatment should the patient have refractory pain and radiographic findings. With a diagnosis of tibial pseudarthrosis in a patient with osteogenesis imperfecta, operative planning should incorporate deformity correction, a load-sharing implant, and consideration of biologic supplementation in the form of autograft cancellous bone or osteoinductive commercial grafts.
C. With anterior bowing, insertion of a rigid tibial rod may result in breaching of the anterior diaphyseal cortex. Additionally, there is marked cortical thickening and a relatively narrow intramedullary canal (7 mm at the isthmus) that may make reaming with a flexible device technically difficult.
D. Comprehensive orthopaedic care for adults with skeletal dysplasias remains a challenge. The patient's care should be reviewed by the multidisciplinary team, and a treatment plan should be agreed upon. Referral to a pediatric orthopaedist is not necessary.

Remediation:
A. An open fracture is an indication for irrigation and debridement as well as open reduction and internal fixation.
B. Surgery is indicated for isolated ulnar shaft fractures with 10° or more of angulation.
C. Cortical displacement of >50% is an indication for surgery.
D. Surgery is indicated when an ulnar shaft fracture is associated with instability of the distal radioulnar joint.

Remediation:
A. Gentle repositioning should be performed immediately to attempt to improve blood flow.
B. Pulseless supracondylar fractures should be monitored clinically as they are at risk for compartment syndrome.
C. Arterial repair should not be performed by someone without experience and comfort doing vascular surgery. A vascular surgeon should be employed for an injury requiring arterial exploration.
D. It would be appropriate to transfer the patient to a facility with vascular surgery capability, should that be required.