The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty. The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

A 30-year-old male patient presents with heel pain. He states that he had been running and felt a pop in the plantar medial aspect of his foot. He reports a long history of plantar fasciitis, for which he has been receiving corticosteroid injections. On examination, he has pain at the plantar medial aspect of his foot. A Thompson test demonstrates good plantar flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
    • Immobilization and protected weight-bearing in a boot for 2 to 3 weeks, followed by physical therapy
    • This patient has sustained a plantar fascia rupture, and the appropriate treatment includes immobilization and a period of non-weight-bearing, followed by physical therapy.


    • Operative repair of the plantar fascia
    • Initial treatment of a plantar fascia rupture is not operative repair but immobilization and protected weightbearing.


    • Custom orthotics with a heel relief
    • Orthotics are insufficient for the initial treatment of a plantar fascia rupture as they do not limit motion and cannot adequately unload the heel.


    • Operative repair of the Achilles tendon
    • The Thompson test is not indicative of an Achilles tendon rupture; therefore, this is not the appropriate treatment choice.