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The JBJS Quiz of the Month is a collection of 10 relevant questions from each orthopaedic subspecialty. The questions are drawn from JBJS Clinical Classroom, which houses over 4,500 questions and 3,100 learning resources. Take the Quiz to see how you score against your peers!

NOTE: This quiz does not earn users CME credits. The questions must be answered within Clinical Classroom to earn CME credits.

You are assessing a 37-year-old male patient with an anterior-posterior compression (APC) type-2 pelvic ring injury. The injury has been stabilized with a pelvic external fixator and the patient is hemodynamically stable 3 days posttrauma. Which of the following is the definitive management of the patient’s pelvic injury?
    • Anterior symphyseal plating with or without posterior stabilization
      • APC type-2 injuries are defined by anterior diastasis of >2.5 cm and anterior sacroiliac joint widening, and require anterior stabilization with possible posterior stabilization

 

    • Allow the patient to bear weight as tolerated
      • Displacement of the pubic symphysis with >2.5 cm diastasis is an indication for operative stabilization

 

    • Protected weight-bearing
      • APC type-1 or lateral compression type-1 injuries can be treated nonoperatively with protected weight-bearing due to the low likelihood of further displacement

 

    • Posterior stabilization with plate alone
      • Vertical shear injuries are unstable with complete disruption of all ligamentous supporting structures and require operative stabilization of anterior and posterior injuries with a possible posterior plate

     

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