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Challenge of the Week / Hip / 04.01.2021

man sitting at desk holding hip

Japanese male businessman who suffers back pain from working from home

A 52-year-old male patient underwent an uncomplicated total hip arthroplasty for primary osteoarthritis 8 years ago with a cementless acetabular component and a cementless femoral stem with a modular femoral neck and a ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing surface. He now presents with progressive groin pain over the past 6 months. His C-reactive protein level and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within normal ranges. He has elevated serum cobalt and chromium levels, and his magnetic resonance imaging shows evidence of a pseudotumor. Which of the following is the best operative option for this patient?

 

 

 

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