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Challenge of the Week / Spine / 03.12.2021

doctor with patient looking at his spine

Backache, Medical Exam, Mature Adult, Rear View, Showing

A 62-year-old male patient with a history of multiple myeloma presents with a 4-week history of midback pain. He does not have difficulty with ambulation or bilateral lower-extremity sensory dysesthesia or weakness. He has a normal gait and is normoreflexic. He does not have long tract signs. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar spine magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) demonstrate a T8 metastatic epidural lesion without substantial effacement of the spinal cord. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

 

 

 

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