A 45-year-old male patient sustained a midshaft clavicle fracture 2 years ago and now presents with persistent pain and mobility at the fracture site with no history of recent trauma. Which of the following complications does this patient most likely manifest? |
- Fracture malunion Malunion will not present with movement at the fracture site.
- Fracture nonunion The clinical history and examination (pain and mobility at the fracture site) are consistent with a fracture nonunion.
- Delayed fracture union The fracture has been present for more than 1 year with no signs of healing; therefore, it is a nonunion rather than a delayed union.
- Refracture With no history of recent trauma, this is unlikely to be the case.